Tuesday, October 18, 2016

Were the Ten Commandments Fulfilled by Jesus?

Matthew 5:17 -  Don't think that I came to destroy the law or the prophets. I didn't come to destroy, but to fulfill. -- World English.

The question is asked: Was it the Law of God, the Ten Commandments (TC), that was fulfilled by the Lord?

The question evidently assumes that the Ten Commandments are the Law of God, but not a part of the Law Covenant. The assumption appears to be that Jesus did not fulfill the Ten Commandments, as they are not part of the Law Covenant. After comparing Exodus 34:28; Deuteronomy 4:13, 14, and Hebrews 8:6-8, there should be no question on the part of anyone that the Ten Commandments were a part of the Law Covenant which is to be supplanted by the New Covenant sealed with the blood (death) of Christ, its Mediator Jesus the Head and the Church his Body.

Paul spoke of one of the ten commandments as being related to the Law Covenant to which the Jew becomes dead through Jesus. James refers to the ten commandments as part of Law Covenant. -- Romans 7:1; Romans 7:2; Romans 7:3; Romans 7:4; Romans 7:7; Romans 7:11; James 2:9; James 2:10; James 2:11.

Jesus, in order to obey his God, had to fulfill any of the laws of God given to Israel through Moses, including the ten commandments. (Romans 3:19; Romans 7:1) If we are to think that Jesus fulfilled all of the Law but that he did not fulfill the ten commandments, then this would mean that he was not obedient to the commands of God as given in those commandments to Israel. And if he did not fulfill the ten commandments, which would further mean that none of Israel is saved; the apostles, and any son of Israel that was born into this world under those commandments (Galatians 4:4), are all under a curse by those commandments. Likewise, if Jesus did not fulfill those commandments, then he was disobedient to his God and Father, and Jesus himself would also be under a curse by those commandments.

On the other hand, if Jesus fulfilled the ten commandments but not the rest of the commandments given to Israel, then Israel is still cursed by those commandments that Jesus did not fulfill, and Jesus himself would also be so cursed. -- Deuteronomy 11:26; Deuteronomy 11:27; Deuteronomy 11:28; Deuteronomy 27:26; Romans 3:19,20; Galatians 3:1; James 2:9; James 2:10; James 2:11.

Either way, if Jesus would not have fulfilled all given through Moses, then Jesus fell short of fulfilling all the commandments of God to Israel, and the ransom sacrifice of Jesus would have been of no effect, since Jesus himself would have been under a curse.

The reality is that Jesus fully obeyed and fulfilled all the commandments, thus providing the means of releasing the Jew from the curse of the Law so that he may become a child of God through Jesus.

Matthew 5:17,18 - The Law is Not Destroyed

 Matthew 5:17 - Don't think that I came to destroy the law or the prophets. I didn't come to destroy, but to fulfill.

Matthew 5:18 - For most assuredly, I tell you, until heaven and earth pass away, not even one smallest letter or one tiny pen stroke shall in any way pass away from the law, until all things are accomplished.
Many do not realize that these words of Jesus were spoken to and concerning those "under the Law." Some have sought to use the above words to bind Gentiles to the Law Covenant; however, this is not what Jesus was talking about. Jesus also stated: "The law and the prophets were until John." (Luke 16:16) John wrote: "For the law was given through Moses. Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.." (John 1:17) And Jesus stated: "Everyone who divorces his wife, and marries another, commits adultery. He who marries one who is put away from a husband commits adultery." Jesus was here speaking the covenant to which the children of Israel are bound. The children of Israel cannot become divorced from the Law, so as to belong to another, without symbolically committing adultery (unfaithfulness). Jesus cannot become the Lord of one who belongs to the Law without also symbolically committing adultery (unfaithfulness). Jesus continues in Luke 16 to describe in the parable of the rich man and Lazarus the separation between the Law Covenant and the Covenant of Grace.

Paul asks: "Don't you know, brothers (for I speak to men who know the law), that the law has dominion over a man for as long as he lives?" -- Romans 7:1.

It is the sons of Israel (not the Gentiles) who are bound to the Law Covenant. That Law Covenant was not given to any other nation but the nation of Israel. The everlasting law covenant with Israel was still upon the Jew in general when Jesus gave his sermon on the mount, and it is still in effect to those still under the law, although it can not give life to anyone due to the sinful flesh. "For as many as are of the works of the law are under a curse." -- Galatians 3:10.

The law covenant is never destroyed, but it does "pass away," 'vanish,' (Hebrews 8:11), once all of its subjects have died, either actually or reckonedly. "The law has dominion over a man for as long as he lives." (Romans 7:1) "Now we have been discharged from the law, having died [reckonedly -- Romans 6:11] to that in which we were held." -- Romans 7:6.

The Law Covenant was designed only for man in his sinful state; it was not designed for the righteous, the justified. (1 Timothy 1:9) If one under the law could fully obey that Law, one could have been justified by such obedience, and such a person would have eternal life by the Law. None of Adam's descendants were so justified by means of Law, for, due to the weakness of sinful flesh, no one could be fully obedient to that Law.

Furthermore, the Law Covenant was not given to all mankind, but only to the nation of Israel. --Exodus 19:5; Deuteronomy 7:6; Amos 3:2.

Gentiles who are grafted into the ecclesia of Christ (Romans 11:17-24) as the seed of Abraham (Galatians 3:15-18) are not grafted into the law covenant, as many assume, for if they were, it would only serve to be a curse for them. (Galatians 3:10) It would further mean that they had not been justified (declared righteous), since it would still account them as sinners. -- 1 Timothy 1:9.

Nevertheless, Jesus, as the seed of promise (Genesis 3:15; Isaiah 9:6,7), the promised son of the man, David (Acts 13:23), had already begun to use his authority as the promised son of David to magnify the Law. 

Jesus' purpose was not to destroy the law, but to fulfill and establish the justness of the Law, which, as a human being (Hebrews 2:9) while in days of his flesh (Hebrews 5:7), did by his full obedience to the Law. On the other hand, the covenant with Abraham and his seed had already been confirmed long before the Law Covenant. -- Galatians 3:16,17.

In many cases, however, it is as the "seed of Abraham" that Jesus acts. Jesus, of course, having received a body especially prepared by his God and Father (Hebrews 10:5; John 6:33,51), did not have the condemnation of Adam, as the rest of mankind. (Romans 5:12-19; 1 Corinthians 15:21,22) And yet, he, although not a sinner was born under the law. (Galatian 4:4) How could he, a righteous man, be under the law, when the law was made for sinners? The prophet wrote that "Jehovah has laid on him the iniquity of us all." (Isaiah 53:6) This, of course, was in a reckoned manner, not because Jesus' flesh was actually sinful. Jesus came into the world of mankind in the "likeness" [not actually] of sinful flesh (Romans 8:3) only because Jehovah had laid upon him the iniquity of the whole world. He suffered and died as though he were a sinner, although in reality he wasn't. And yet, through his obedience, Jesus condemned sin the flesh (Romans 8:3) and fulfilled the commandments of the Law.

The fulfilling of the law, however, requires not just the keeping of the law commandments, but also the fulfilling of the typical arrangements provided in the law by the realities that are pictured by those types. Many of these types involve the Church of Christ, and thus, the fulfilling of the law extends beyond Jesus himself. (Colossians 2:17; 8:5; 10:1) Since some of these typical arrangements are not fulfilled until the age to come, then the present heaven and earth must pass away before the law is totally fulfilled. Furthermore, the entire Law is still active upon all who are under that Law. For those under the Law, nothing at all in the Law passes away until after the present heavens and earth pass away. -- Matthew 5:18; Luke 16:17

Nevertheless, Jesus had to be born under the law, and to suffer as though he were disobedient to that law, else he could not have purchased, redeemed any from the curse of the law. -- Galatians 3:13.

Romans 4:13 - For not through the law was the promise to Abraham or to his seed that he should be heir of the world, but through the righteousness of faith.
Romans 4:14 For if those who are of the law are heirs, faith is made void, and the promise is made of no effect.

Jesus' inheritance was not of the law covenant (Galatians 3:18; Romans 4:13), although Jesus, being born under the Law (Galatians 4:4), was obligated to keep the Law covenant (Romans 3:19; James 2:10; Romans 7:1), which he did perfectly, else he would have been cursed under the Law just as the Jews in general. (Galatians 3:10)  If he had failed in one small matter (James 2:10), he would not have received the inheritance, since he would be condemned just as everyone else under the law. While his keeping the law perfectly proved him to be the promised one, his inheritance as the promised one was due to his being the seed of Abraham, the seed of David, not due the law covenant itself. Likewise, the believers' inheritance is because -- through faith in Jesus -- they are made the seed of Abraham with Jesus, and it is not attributed to the law covenant, nor is it directly attributable to the new covenant, but we do believe one has be first become a son by appropriating the blood of the new covenant before he can become members of the seed of Abraham. (Matthew 26:28; Mark 14:24; Luke 22:20; 1 Corinthians 11:25; Hebrews 10:29; 12:24) Hebrews 10:29 shows, also, that new creature in Christ must stay under the blood of the new covenant, or else one can be subject a condemnation for which no sacrifice is provided. -- Hebrews 10:26.

And yet we should realize that the new covenant does not have its actual "beginning" until the age to come, when God, by means of that covenant releases the dead from the tomb through application of the blood of Christ. There could be no resurrection of either the just or the unjust without an application of the blood of the new covenant that releases the dead so that they may be raised in the last day, whether to life or judgment. Nevertheless, the believers in this age receive the application of the new covenant through the holy spirit as a token, a down payment, an earnest, of the reality to follow. (2 Corinthians 1:21,22; 5:4,5; Ephesians 1:13,14) They, in effect, taste of powers of the age to come. (Hebrews 6:5) Being transferred thereby into the coming kingdom (Colossians 1:13), they become representatives of that kingdom in the midst of corrupt generation (Philippians 2:15), and servants of a new covenant. -- 2 Corinthians 3:6.

The new covenant, however, is not just for the purpose of releasing the dead from the death condition resulting from Adam, but it is also for the purpose of reconciliation (Romans 5:11; 2 Corinthians 5:19), returning mankind not only to what Adam had before Adam sinned, but also returning mankind to the possibility of perfecting love and faith in the Creator, as Adam could have done. This, of course, does not mean that any released from the condemnation in Adam becomes lawless. Through Christ's obedience to God, including his obedience to the law covenant, as a man, and due to his proving himself unswervingly incorruptible as a man, he brought life and incorruption to light. (1 Corinthians 15:54; 2 Timothy 1:10) A sinless man had not only kept God's law, but had also proven himself to to be *incorruptible* in obedience to his God and Father.

It is true that the until the apostles were enlightened by the holy spirit there was no general understanding of the basis of salvation. God, however, who calls things that are not as though they were (Romans 4:17), could and did bring a reckoning of salvation before the sacrifice of Jesus was made, since God had foreknowledge that the sacrifice was to be given, and thus due to his foreknowledge, that which was not yet was reckoned as being as though it had already happened, just as he counts people as alive in view of the coming resurrection in the last day. -- Luke 20:37,38

Question: Are you saying that we have to abide by OT law?

No; that Law was only with the nation of Israel (Exodus 19:5; Deuteronomy 7:6; Amos 3:2), and as each member of that nation accepts Jesus or actually dies, that law is no longer in effect for that person, and thus that person is no longer condemned by that law. -- Romans 7:1-4; Galatians 3:10.

Is the New Covenant Active Now?

Most realize that Bible Students are split over whether the new covenant is active now, or if it belongs exclusively to or becomes active in the next age. We believe that the problem is that most do not seem to realize how the New Covenant, if it is not active now, can be active on the new creature so as to result in sanctification (consecration). The terminology most often used among Bible Students would either result in the thought that the new creature is not under the New Covenant, or that if he is under the New Covenant, then the New Covenant must be active now. We believe that trom these two extremes other wrong conclusions are developed.

What we need to realize is that everything pertaining the new creation belongs to the age to come, not this present evil age. Thus, Paul wrote:

Therefore if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The old things have passed away. Behold, they have become new. - 2 Corinthians 5:17.

The new creation is related to the passing away of the present evil age, the present heavens and earth, and the time when all things are made new. -- Isaiah 65:17; Matthew 5:18; 24:35; Mark 31:31; Luke 21:33; 2 Peter 3:10,13; Revelation 21:1-5.

That New Heavens and New Earth are not now, but belong to the "age to come."

He will receive one hundred times now in this time, houses, brothers, sisters, mothers, children, and land, with persecutions; and in the age to come eternal life. -- Mark 10:30.

Who will not receive many times more in this time, and in the world [age] to come, eternal life." -- Luke 18:30.

That "age to come" had not yet come when the book of Hebrews was written, and it still has not come:

Concerning those who were once enlightened and tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Spirit,  and tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the age to come. -- Hebrews 6:4,5.

This last scripture shows that the new creature in this age has tasted "the powers of the age to come." It is in that age to come that the New Covenant becomes active to the world, thus we conclude that those who are chosen out this world become new creatures by means of the power of the age to come, reckoning them as belonging to the day. 

That "age to come" still is not fully with us, since the heathen of the earth are still being deceived by Satan (2 Corinthians 4:4; Revelation 20:3), and the promised blessings of the heathen are not being seen. (Genesis 22:18) It is still true that God is choosing people out of the corrupted world as his sons, who then are no longer of the corrupted world (John 15:19), thus the corrupted world (Romans 5:12; 8:21; 2 Peter 1:4) is still in existence, and has not yet passed away. -- 1 Corinthians 17:31; John 2:17.

Once the present heavens and earth have passed away, the New Covenant becomes operative through Israel. (Jeremiah 31:31) In the meantime, we conclude that those who become new creatures in Christ in this age partake of the blessings of the age to come, having the New Covenant reckoned as applied to them beforehand. 

Therefore, when Jesus told his disciples: "This cup is the new covenant in my blood, even that which is poured out for you" (Luke 22:20; see also 1 Corinthians 1125 he was indeed saying that the new covenant was to be applied to his disciples. The "blood of the covenant" (Matthew 26:28; Mark 14:24) that is applied to the followers of Christ is new covenant. The blood by which the believer is sanctified (consecrated) is the blood of the new covenant (Hebrews 10:29; 12:24; 13:20), by applying the powers of the age to come to those who believe in this age. -- Hebrews 6:4,5.


Did Jesus Fulfill the Talmudic Law?

The Talmudic Law is man's law, not God's law; the Talmudic law developed by what many call "oral" tradition, much of which tradition of man found its way into the Talmuds. Jesus spoke of such laws of men in his words recorded at Matthew 15:3-11; Mark 7:6-13. Jesus certainly had no obligation to keep the traditions of men in order to fulfill God's Law.

The Mosaic Law is God's Law -- all of it. Jesus stated:

Moses said, 'Honor your father and your mother;' and, 'He who speaks evil of father or mother, let him be put to death.' -- Mark 7:10.

Since this is part of the ten commandments (Exodus 20:12), Jesus was, in effect, attributing this to the Law of Moses.

The law was given through Moses. -- John 1:17.

It is God's Law, and it is also the Law of Moses, since God gave the Law through Moses.

Likewise, the commandments of Jesus are also the commandments of God, since God gives these commandments through Jesus.

The traditions of men, however, are not God's Law; Jesus, for the most part disregarded such commandments of men, since many of them are not in agreement with the Law of God. Jesus could not fulfill both those laws of men and also the Law Covenant, because the Laws of men were not actually in harmony with the Law of God.

Nevertheless, the Law of God in principle exists separate from the Law Covenant itself. God's eternal Law has its basis in "love", and that principle will always be required of man. The Law Covenant is based on that principle; the Law Covenant was given with the promise that if one kept the law, one would live forever. In other words, if anyone kept that law perfectly, he would have been justified by the Law. No one, however, was justified by the Law, since no man could make himself just (straight, as opposed to the corrupt, crooked condition that God has subjected man to through the sin of Adam).

Revelation 1:10 - The Lord's Day and the First Day of the Week

Did the apostles observe, or keep, the first day of the week as a Holy Day? Did John in Revelation 1:10 refer to it as "the Lord's Day"?

We personally see nothing in the scriptures that indicate that the first-century Christians were observing Sunday as either a sabbath or "the Lord's Day". It certainly should not considered as an essential doctrine to believe such.

There are some references in the Bible to the first day of the week, but nothing is said about any special observance of that day, either of it being a day of rest, or of it being appointed a day of remembrance of Jesus' resurrection, nor is there any reference to any general custom of observing the first day of the week. None of the scriptures refer to the first day of the week as being "Lord's day." -- Matthew 28:1; Mark 16:2,9; Luke 24:1; John 10:1; 20:19; Acts 20:7; 1 Corinthians 16:2.

John stated: "I was in [Strong's #1722, instrumental "in", by means of] the Spirit on [Strong's #1722, locative "in"], the Lord's [Strong's #2960] day" (Revelation 1:10), and yet there is no indication in those words that he was speaking of the first day of the week. Being "in", or "by means of the spirit" located in time on the "Lord's Day", we believe, means that John had been taken by means of God's Holy Spirit into the future, into the the "last day" (John 6:39,40,44,54; 11:24; 12:48), so as to see the events to be described in the Revelation from that perspective. The Greek word "Lord" here is transliterated with form Kuriakos, which is a form of Kurios. Kuriakos here in the Greek is not indefinite, and it thus evidently not being used to replace the Holy Name, as in "the day of Jehovah." It could be rendered as "day of the Lord." The form Kuriakos only occurs in one other scripture: 1 Corinthians 11:20. It means "belonging to or related to the Lord." It is evidently referring the Millennial Age as corresponding to the "day of Christ." -- Philippians 1:10; 2:16; 2 Thessanlonians 2:2
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/1722.html.
https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/2960.html

One has to go beyond what is written into later writings to connect an expression "the Lord's Day" to the first day of the week. The Bible never reveals the first day of the week to be "the Lord's Day". It is not for us, however, to speak evil or to condemn any who wish to think of the first day of the week as being "the Lord's day." Let each be persuaded in his own mind. -- Romans 14:5.